Quiz Questions 13 December 2022

Quiz Questions 13 December 2022


Q1. Consider the following about the terms of the Office of the Governor:

The Governor can resign at any time by addressing a resignation letter to the Chief Minister of the State.

The Constitution does not lay down the grounds upon which a governor may be removed by the President.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (B)

The resignation letter is submitted to the President, and not the Chief Minister.

A governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.

However, this term of five years is subject to the pleasure of the President.

The Supreme Court held that the pleasure of the President is not justifiable.

The governor has no security of tenure and no fixed term of office.

He may be removed by the President at any time without mentioning any grounds for his removal.


Q2. Consider the following statements:

Supreme Court has declared Right to decent environment including pollution free water as part of Article 21.

Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley.

Development of inter-state rivers, water supplies, irrigation and canals come under the Union List.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

1, 3

2, 3

1, 2

1, 2, 3

Solution: (C)

Right to decent environment including pollution free water and air and protection against hazardous industries is part of Article 21.

While water supplies, irrigation and canals, drainage and embankments and storage fall in the State List, issues like development of inter-state rivers come under the Union List.


Q3. Blackrock and Netwire, recently seen in news are:

Mini satellites

Superbug

Malware

Crypto currency

Solution:  (C)

Blackrock and Netwire, recently seen in news are Malwares recently detected.


Q4. 69th Constitutional Amendment Act is related to:

Granting Representative form of government for the NCT of Delhi

Granting statehood after Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh

Constitutional status and protection to cooperative societies

Disqualification on grounds of defection

Solution:  (A)

The 69th Constitutional Amendment passed in 1991 through which Article 239 AA was added to the Constitution.

The amendment envisioned a representative form of government for the NCT of Delhi which until then was just known as Delhi administration, with officers reporting directly to the lieutenant governor (LG).

It was only after the 1991 constitutional amendment was passed that Parliament enacted the NCT of Delhi Act 1991 based on the constitutional mandate.


Q5. Consider the following statements regarding Model code of conduct (MCC):

This code is based on consensus among political parties.

It is part of the Representation of the People Act 1951.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect:

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:  (B)

Since it is a code of conduct framed on the basis of a consensus among political parties, it has not been given any legal backing.

Although a committee of Parliament recommended that the code should be made a part of the Representation of the People Act 1951, the ECI did not agree to it on the ground that once it becomes a part of law, all matters connected with the enforcement of the code will be taken to court, which would delay elections


Q6. Which of the following factors limit the sovereignty of Indian Parliament:

Written Nature of the Constitution

Federal System of Government

System of Judicial Review

Fundamental Rights

Fundamental Duties

Select the correct answer code:

1, 2, 3, 5

1, 3, 4, 5

1, 2, 3, 4

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Solution: (C)

The factors that limit the sovereignty of Indian Parliament are:

Written Nature of the Constitution: Parliament has to operate within the limits prescribed by the Constitution.

Federal System of Government: The law-making authority of the Parliament gets confined to the subjects enumerated in the Union List and Concurrent List and does not extend to the subjects enumerated in the State List (except in five abnormal circumstances and that too for a short period).

System of Judicial Review: The adoption of an independent Judiciary with the power of judicial review also restricts the supremacy of our Parliament.

Fundamental Rights: The authority of the Parliament is also restricted by the incorporation of a code of justiciable fundamental rights under Part III of the Constitution. Fundamental duties does not limit the sovereignty of Indian Parliament.


Q7. Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Privileges:

The Constitution provides Parliamentary privileges to the members of both the houses of parliament and not their committees.

The Constitution has also extended the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak in the proceedings of a House of Parliament.

The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the president of India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

1, 2

2, 3

2 only

1, 3

Solution: (B)

Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the two Houses of Parliament, their committees and their members.

The Constitution has also extended the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of a House of Parliament or any of its committees.

These include the attorney general of India and Union ministers.

The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the president who is also an integral part of the Parliament.


Q8. The act created for the first time, a Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India:

 Charter Act of 1833

 Act of 1891

 Act of 1909

 Government of India Act 1935

Solution: (A)

Charter Act of 1833 was the final step towards centralisation in British India.

It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers.

It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers.

It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body.

It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.


Q9. The “Sovereignty” of India means:

No external power can dictate to the government of India.

Citizens cannot be discriminated against on any grounds.

There is freedom of speech and expression for Indian citizens.

Select the correct answer code:

1, 2

1 only

1, 3

1, 2, 3

Solution: (B)

Sovereignty simply implies that India is a state that takes its own decisions ultimately guided by the people.

No external agency dictates terms to India.

However, the notion of sovereignty does not seep into the framework of all democratic rights.

For e.g. a sovereign state might very well discriminate between its citizens.

Same applies for freedom of speech and expression.

A sovereign state may very well restrict freedom of speech, as it is not an absolute right, even though it is vital to a democracy.


Q10. Which of the following statement is not correct:

Fundamental Rights are not sacrosanct

Fundamental Rights promote the ideal of political democracy

The six rights guaranteed by Article 19 can be suspended when the emergency is declared on the grounds of external aggression and armed rebellion

Laws made to enforce fundamental rights can be made only by the parliament and not by state legislatures

Solution:  (C)

The six rights guaranteed by Article 19 can be suspended only when emergency is declared on the grounds of war or external aggression (i.e., external emergency) and not on the ground of armed rebellion (i.e., internal emergency)


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