Q1. In India, the right to form Co-operative societies is a

(a) natural right

(b) legal right

(c) constitutional right

(d) fundamental right

ANS-D

Explanation:

The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 gave aconstitutionalstatus and protection to co-operativesocieties.

It made the right to form co-operativesocieties afundamental right (Article 19).

It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy onpromotion of co-operativesocieties (Article 43-B).

Q2. Which of the following is/are brought under the jurisdiction of the anti-corruption body known as Lokpal?

1. Institutions aided by the government
2. The Office of Prime Minister
3. Entities receiving more than 10 lakhs from foreign sources
4. Members of the Parliament

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

ANS-B

Explanation:

The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act (2013) seeks to establish the institution ofthe Lokpal at the Centreand the Lokayukta at the level of the State and thus seekstoprovide a uniform vigilance and anti-corruption road map for thenation both at theCentre and at the States.

The jurisdiction ofLokpal includes the Prime Minister,Ministers, Members ofParliament and Groups A, B, C and D officers and officials oftheCentral Government.

The Prime Minister has been brought under the purview oftheLokpal with subject matter exclusions and specific process forhandling complaintsagainst the Prime Minister.

Institutions which are financed fully or partly by Governmentare under the jurisdictionof Lokpal, but institutions aided by Government are excluded.

Hence 2, 3, and 4 are only correct.

Q3. Which of the following for first time provides a clear cut constitutional recognition to the existence of political parties in India?

(a) The Representation of Peoples Act, 1950

(b) Anti-defection Law

(c) Article 324

(d) Delimitation Act, 2002

ANS-B

Explanation:

The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 provided for the disqualification of themembers of Parliament and the state legislatures on the ground of defection from onepolitical party to another.

A member of a House belonging to any political party becomes disqualified for being amember of the House, (a) if he voluntarily gives up his membership of such politicalparty; or (b) if he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any directionissued by his political party;

Like this provision, many provisions in the Anti-defection law gives, for the first time, aclear-cut constitutional recognition to the existence of political parties.

Q4. For election to the Rajya Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by:

(a) any citizen of India

(b) a resident and elector of a particular State for which the election is to be contested

(c) anyone residing in a particular state forwhich the election is to be contested

(d) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency

ANS-D

Explanation:

The requirement that a candidatecontesting an election to the RajyaSabha from a particularstate should be an elector in that particular state wasdispensed with in 2003.

In 2006, the Supreme Court upheldthe constitutional validity ofthis change.

Hence option B is incorrect.

He must be citizen of India and registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency.

Hence option D is correct.

Q5. Consider the following statements:

1. Chhattisgarh shares border with six states only

2. Assam shares border with seven states only
3. Uttar Pradesh shares border with eight states only

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

ANS-C

Explanation:

Chhattisgarh borders the states of Madhya Pradesh in thenorthwest, Uttar Pradesh in the north, Jharkhand in northeast, Maharashtra in thesouthwest, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh in the south,and Odisha in the southeast.

Itborders with Seven states only.

The state is bordered by Bhutan and Arunachal Pradesh to thenorth; Nagaland and Manipur to theeast; Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram and Bangladesh to the south; and West Bengal to thewest via the Siliguri Corridor, a 22 kilometres (14 mi) wide strip of land that connects thestate to the rest of India.

The state is bordered by Rajasthan to the west, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh and Delhi tothe northwest, Uttarakhand and an international border with Nepal to thenorth, Bihar to the east, Madhya Pradesh to the south, and touches the statesof Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh to the southeast.

Q6.Which one of the following is a cardinal feature of Indian Parliamentary system?

(a) The Parliament can make, amend, substitute or repeal any law

(b) The Parliament can make constitutional laws by the same procedure as ordinary laws

(c) The Federal system of government does not affect the sovereignty of the Parliament

(d) The head of the government cannot be changed without election.

ANS-A

Explanation:

The Parliament can make, amend, substitute or repeal any law. It is themost correct option.

The Parliament can make constitutional laws by the same procedure as ordinarylaws.

Constitutional laws require special procedure. It cannot be changed by the sameprocedure as ordinary laws.

The Federal system of government does not affect the sovereignty of the Parliament.

State legislature shares law making powers with the Parliament.

The head of the government cannot be changed without election. The Prime Ministercan be changed without election.

Q7. Which one of the following countries of Asia is a land-locked country?

(a) Cambodia

(b) Lebanon

(c) Jordan

(d) Armenia

ANS-D

Explanation:

Cambodia is open to Pacific Ocean.

Lebanon is open to Mediterranean Sea

Jordan is open to Gulf of Aqaba.

Armenia is a land locked country in Asia.

Hence option D is the correct answer.

Q8.  “To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life” is a provision made in the

(a) Preamble of the Constitution

(b) Fundamental Rights

(c) Fundamental Duties

(d) Directive Principles of State Policy

ANS-D

Explanation:

The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new DirectivePrinciples tothe original list.

It added this provision:

To protect and improve the environment and tosafeguardforests and wild life (Article 48 A).

Q9. Consider the following statements:

1. The actual size of a State Legislative Council is one-third of the total strength of the State Legislative Assembly.

2. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman of State Legislative Council are not subject to annual vote of the state legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS-B

Explanation:

Unlike the members of the legislative assembly, the members ofthelegislative council are indirectly elected.

The maximum strength of thecouncil isfixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly andthe minimum strength isfixed at 40.

It means that the size of thecouncil depends on the size of the assembly ofthe concerned state.

This is done to ensure the predominance of the directly elected House(assembly) in thelegislative affairs of the state.

Though theConstitution has fixed the maximum and theminimum limits, theactual strength of a Council is fixed by Parliament.

Hencestatement 1 is incorrect.

The salaries and allowances of the Speaker and the DeputySpeaker of the assembly andthe Chairman and the Deputy Chairmanof the council are fixed by the state legislature.

They are charged onthe Consolidated Fund of the State and thus are not subject totheannual vote of the state legislature.

Hence statement 2 alone is correct.

Q10. Why is thorium considered as the ideal and best fuel than Uranium in the nuclear field?

1. Thorium produces much less nuclear waste than Uranium
2. The waste generated by thorium is much less radioactive and short-lived
3. 3.Thorium cannot directly be used for developing nuclear weapons
4. Thorium is abundant in nature and does not require enrichment

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 2 and 4 only

(b) 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

ANS-D

Explanation:

Thorium sits two spots left of uranium on the periodic table, in the samerow or series.

Elements in the same series share characteristics.

With uranium andthorium, the key similarity is that both can absorb neutrons and transmute into fissileelements.

That means thorium could be used to fuel nuclear reactors, just like uranium.

And asproponents of the underdog fuel will happily tell you, thorium is more abundant innature than uranium, is not fissile on its own (which means reactions can be stoppedwhen necessary), produces waste products that are less radioactive, and generatesmore energy per ton.

Thorium is three times more abundant in nature than uranium.

All but a trace of theworld’s thorium exists as the useful isotope, which means it does not requireenrichment.

Thorium-based reactors are safer because the reaction can easily bestopped and because the operation does not have to take place under extremepressures.

Compared to uranium reactors, thorium reactors produce far less waste andthe waste that is generated is much less radioactive and much shorter-lived.

To top it all off, thorium would also be the ideal solution for allowing countries like Iranor North Korea to have nuclear power without worrying whether their nuclear programsare a cover for developing weapons.